I've been thinking about this a lot. Awhile ago on the news they said that a reverse hate-crime had taken place. A Caucasian man's house was broken into and vandalized. "Honky" and other words were spray-painted on his walls. This sort of confused me. Does that mean that a hate-crime can only be what Caucasians do to African-Americans? That doesn't make sense to me especially in this day and age because there are hate-crimes that happen to people of every race by people of every race (e.g. a Latino to an African-American). What about "white people" who hate other "white people" like Irish and English and things like that? If they do something to another, shouldn't that be a hate-crime too? What do you guys think?
Post by SquallStrife on Jul 11, 2005 11:41:54 GMT -5
Yeah, I've heard that term used. It's pretty messed up. I don't see how they can consider some things a hate-crime and others not. For example, a person of one background robbing that of another, if the robberer only did it because the other person was of another color and admitted to it, shouldn't that be considered a hate-crime too? His only motive was hatred.
Yeah, I'm not sure why we actually have hate-crimes anymore because a lot of things that are considered hate-crimes are parts of other crimes too such as breaking into a guys house and writing bad words on his wall. What in the eyes of the law is considered a true hate-crime?